Hmm... But that seems to be a fundamental question in relation to ME...
i.e. Do the symptoms of ME indicate 'harm'? And do increased symptoms indicate a higher level of harm?
Maybe any studies that show higher levels of biomarkers (unique to ME) in relation to increased symptoms after exertion, could be considered evidence of this?
At a very basic level, it could be said that a decrease in physical function (or an increase in disability), is evidence of harm.
And if any decrease in physical function corresponds to changes in biomarkers, then surely that's evidence of physical harm.
I think it could also be argued that an increase in distressing symptoms of fatigue is also 'harm', whatever the nature of the fatigue.
Even if they believe that there is no evidence that an increase in symptoms indicates harm there statement is very misleading because it is not safe to conclude the oposite. If they believed that the thing they should accurately conclude is that 'we don't understand the relationship between a worsening of symptoms and harm'. If they have reason to believe that there was no relationship as they imply they would simply state that and point to the evidence.
In logic there is a concept of a closed world which was introduced due to the inability to express 'don't know' as a concept. The concept basically says if you don't know something is true then assume it is false. Logicians of course know this is dangerous and are very careful to limit the scope. It seems to me that Wessely and White fall into the trap of assuming things they don't know must be false. Its a theme that comes out in quite a lot of the things they write.
An evidential approach would look at various bits of evidence for the harm/no harm hypothesis. They would persumably find a lot of anicdotal evidence from patients who relapse after pushing themselves too hard and ignoring symptoms. I assume it is very hard to give a definative answer without having an explanation of how ME works. They of course have their all in the mind theory and hence they confidently make a statement about not causing harm. There problem is that they have no evidence for their theory.
Just of of curiosity do they have a definition of harm, is it equated with a tempory relapse, a perminant relapse how do they measure it?