percyval577
nucleus caudatus et al
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I have forgotten the source, but to that knowledge the following accounts:The only factor I am aware of that might make us question this comparison of flu and coronavirus death rate is the fact that some flu deaths are not actually recorded as a flu, but instead the cause of death may be recorded as whatever underlying health condition the patient had
The mortality of flu epidemics is calculated only through excess mortality in a given period over an average (driven from longer time frames).
The other deaths which have occured with being infected with the virus would accordingly not account for
flu mortality.
In contrast to your statement, I think this to be reasonable. Given the course of life, it is inevitable that people die, and this will occur to any time with a certain average. If these deaths are now with flu, heart attacks or whatever is rather unimportant, or you would question the course of life.
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(Maybe his is how to read the mortality in Gangelt /Heinsberg, that there would have been an excess mortality in the time periode looked at where covid-19 was, and the mortality was given as 0.06%?
If my poor maths have been right, with a given case fatality of 0.37% it would make a percentage of 16.2% of people in the area having been on contact with the virus. Hope it´s right.
This would match up with the antibody test result of 14% of people having been infected - lowest estimation, as they said.
But probably the mortality rate is only an estimation and not already empirically evaluated from local data.
I guess the case fatality has been estimated from cases with positive tests, so regardless of underlying diseases that would lead to death, given also often a certain age. And this would be canceled out on the mortality).
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