Hi Alex - not sure if you have other sources than the msnbc article, but first of all it says "may," and secondly it says "increase the risk." That's not a cause, it's only suggesting that a gene or some genetic profile might make a person more susceptible to acquiring the disorder. And how is that likely to happen? Through thought and emotional processes, most likely. Regardless of what actually ends up causing something like anorexia, I think to uphold genetics as a cause while ruling out thought/mind as a possible causative factor is showing some pretty significant bias, especially when it would seem reasonable to conclude, provisionally, at least, that both factors as well as a host of others are probably involved.
Regarding placebo effects, it's simply not true that it's only been observed regarding subjective factors. Researchers have observed changes in brain activity in people who get placebo, and we're even beginning to identify specific brain pathways and activation profiles that would make a person more susceptible to a placebo effect. People with cancer even have had tumors shrink from placebo. From a Scientific American article (entire article is behind a paywall, but the "In Brief" is actually a good summation):
I think perhaps you are engaging in some pre-established selection bias in claiming the placebo effect is not valid, and by extension, in appearing to claim that mind cannot influence health or cause (or cure) disease. At some point, trying to be "super scientific" and deterministic from a purely physical standpoint (it's all b/c of genes, etc.), or ultra "logical" from a linguistic standpoint - the results of which don't always bear out in reality (a syllogism can be valid but not sound, for example) - becomes self-limiting imo, and exclusionary of a lot of information we are starting to discover with advanced brain imaging techniques and with more of an acceptance and understanding of the mind/body connection both in the general population and the scientific community. "Psychosomatic" does not always have to be a dirty word, when it actually is the psyche that's causing actual somatic issues. ;-) Although psychogenic might in fact be a better term.
First, I do not and have not claimed the mind cannot affect health ... in fact I have specifically said it can. It seems you have misunderstood
all my posts. Specifically it appears you have a different interpretation as to what a fallacy is. Furthermore, despite my repeatedly having said that the conclusion that these disorders could be psychogenic could be right has been ignored. So all your arguments on that line of reasoning are invalid.
I would suggest you read:
http://muse.jhu.edu/login?auth=0&ty...chiatry_and_psychology/v017/17.4.sykes01.html
However you might need the full paper.
The psychogenic fallacy does not imply that the mind cannot affect body. Nor does it imply that the mind cannot cause disease. Its about the claims that it
does cause disease, in case after case. The
vast majority of these claims have been disproved. More are in the process of being understood, and like ME and IBS and GWS it appears they might soon be disproved. The problem is that when there is a hundred possibilities, those who like to claim psychogenic causation jump to the conclusion that a psychogenic cause is THE cause, without evidence. Thats the fallacy.
In effect they are saying because a psychogenic cause
might be true, it
is true. If that logic is valid, then these diseases
might be caused by aliens, so they
are caused by aliens. Similarly anorexia
might be caused by aliens, so it
is caused by aliens. To use something less outlandish for which there is some evidence, anorexia
might be caused by chemical imbalances of appetite, therefore it
is caused by chemical imbalances. All of these are fallacies. So is it
might be genetics therefore it
is genetics, when its still not really understood.
In reality its more subtle than just
might be. The unstated premise is:
If there is no known physical cause for a condition, there is no actual physical cause for the
condition.
This is simply presumed. The second premise is:
If there is no actual physical cause for the condition, the cause must be psychological.
This second premise is reasonable enough, because the only alternatives left are aliens, magic, etc. Its the first premise that is the problem. It makes unproven presumptions. In computing this would be called the closed world assumption.
On anorexia and snps, of course they are responsible and say they
might be a factor in anorexia. Thats what they
should say. Anorexia has a strong familial association. Its entirely
possible the primary causative factor is genetic. In which cases social factors
might be simply exacerbating or risk factors. Its also possible it might be caused by viruses, environmental poisoning etc. It also might be caused by combinations of these with social factors, or have multiple causes, or different causes in different anorexia subsets. Indeed there is
some evidence to suggest that
first appetite is biochemically modified and then social factors reinforce that.
On placebo effect, the observation of non-subjective beneficial changes have not been substantiated in two (one?) metastudies. In addition most of the strong research is based on pain, not other outcomes, which is a subjective factor. Subjective does not mean it is not real either. The effects that were seen were within the range of potential bias.
When multiple options exist, including things we have not discovered yet, its fallacious to focus on
any one of them as a certainty rather than as an hypothesis. The psychogenic fallacy does so by saying "we do not know what it is therefore its psychological". If they said that, for example, ME
might have a psychogenic cause, and proceeded to test it rigorously, the whole debate would be very different. They completely skip that step and go right to studies based on the presumption that psychogenic causation is unassailable. Thats not rational, its not scientific - its fallacious.
The fallacy is the presumption of truth, rather than the recognition that these are hypotheses that need rigorous testing. It does
not mean that all these hypotheses are wrong.
One more example: ME
might be caused by XMRV, therefore it
is caused by XMRV. We know how the research went on that one. It would have been fair to say that XMRV might be causal, as an hypothesis, which is how many of us took it: a valid hypthosis at that point in time. "Might be .... therefore is" is frequently wrong.
Bye, Alex