That's very interesting. Not knowing very much about economics, I kind of assumed that when the UK government wanted to borrow money, it would get a loan from the bank of England, and the bank would then create this money by its usual fractional reserve mechanism.
But a quick Google check reveals that when governments want to raise cash, they issue bonds that the general public can buy and invest in, with these investors in the general public then earning interest from the bonds they buy, and the government paying this interest, in return for the use of the public's money. So everybody is happy. Is that generally correct?
Are there any circumstances where governments will instead get a loan from a central bank, like the Bank of England? And when countries get emergency loans from international banks like the IMF, or from international development banks like the Word Bank, are those loans counted as part of government debt, or does much of the money loaned by a country from international banks go straight into the private sector, for funding corporate development projects?
Do you have an economics background, by the way?
No economics background, just interested in Political Economy.
When a Government wants to spend money, all it does is instruct the Central Bank to credit certain accounts. The issuance of bonds is a holdover from when there was a gold standard. Under a gold standard, the amount of spending was constrained by the gold reserves that were held. Theoretically, a holder of currency was able to 'convert' the currency into gold by applying to the central bank, and exchanging the coins or notes. After gold standards were abolished, the currency became 'un-convertable'. If you go to the central bank now and give them say a £100 note, and ask for it to be converted, they might amuse themselves and exchange it for 2 £50's.
A government that is 'sovereign' in its currency owns and runs the central bank for the public good. It does not need to 'borrow' any of its own currency, it is the monopoly issuer of it. This is called a 'fiat currency'. (by decree or order)
This is the difference between say the UK and Greece. The monopoly issuer of the £ is the the British Government. (if I start issuing pounds, I'm going to jail for counterfeiting) The monopoly issuer of the Euro is the European Central Bank (ECB), not the Greek Central Bank. The Greek Central Bank works for the ECB, not its own government.
So why does the central bank issues bonds, if it can just create the money from nothing? Well, for one thing, it provides the markets with a long term stable investment. Pension funds for instance, would and do prefer this type of investment because of its stability. Say a 10 year bond, with 3% interest is a good investment from a stable institution, that is not going to go bankrupt, or run off with the money, or find a way to refuse to pay.
When a country gets a loan from an institution like the IMF it is counted as public (government debt). As I understand it, the loan is given in a major (such as the U.S. dollar, euro, yen, or pound sterling). One of the problems of Greece is that to pay back such a massive loan, it has had to sell real things such as state property. Once you start selling property to generate income to pay off a loan, especially when you then give up revenue earned by that property, (such as a state owned port) you find yourself trapped in a vicious circle. This is good for multinational corporations, as they have a desperate seller, willing to take what they can get. This is why the IMF loans are attached with conditions, such as mandated selling off of public goods, such as healthcare, industries etc.
To help you untangle the mysteries and myths of 'fractional reserve banking', I'll have to leave that to this blog to explain.
http://bilbo.economicoutlook.net/blog/?p=14620 His explanations are excellent for those of use who are trying to learn, especially the links in that piece for 'Deficit Spending 101'.
Some further reading I would recommend would be
http://moslereconomics.com/mandatory-readings/innocent-frauds/
or David Graebers book 'Debt: The First 5000 Years'.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Debt:_The_First_5000_Years
I must stress that these facts are non-ideological, in that they are based on basic accounting principles. (i.e the assumptions and deductions are based on agreed fundamental descriptions) What the economists do with the deductions are up to personal choice.
There is a similar disagreement between economists like there is in ME, with 'Neo-classical
Theories' akin to the BPS school, and the Modern Monetary Theorists like the biology based researchers.
The most important thing to grasp from my POV, is that a government sovereign in its currency is NOT like a household.
Hope that answered some of your questions, it's complicated
On the question of debt, I tried to find this out a few years ago - who the debt is owed to and whether it could be written off - I asked a few people, and the conclusion seemed to be that all this debt mountain is basically owed to big financial institutions which manage funds that ultimately translate to pension funds. In other words, the debt is basically money we all owe to ourselves - to our own future. I don't know how accurate that is, obviously it's a crude summary of the situation, but the implications are quite scary.
To make it less scary, would you rather have the promise to get your pension income from an institution that can always pay, or Philip Green?
Or looking at it another way, why would a government deliberately choose not to give money owed to pensioners? (slightly simplified)
All it means is that in the future, pensioners will receive an income, which will be used to either do nothing, destroy (you could burn the actual notes

), exchange or leave for others, or buy goods and services.