Dr Igor Markov Says ME/CFS Is Caused by a Bacterial Dysbiosis in the Kidneys, and Says Autovaccine Therapy Cures 93% of ME/CFS Cases

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I'm unable to find any evidence that the kidneys normally have any microbiome at all? This article on the gut-kidney axis says that it is considered sterile...?:

https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fmed.2020.620102/full#B34

If healthy kidneys are sterile, is the term "kidney dysbiosis" even valid? Or is this a case of it's assumed to be sterile, like the bladder was for a long time, but may actually not be (like the bladder turned out to not be)?

Also of note in that same article relevant to the CBIS theory (discussing other sources mentioning bacterial translocation):

"As discussed previously, when microbial communities are imbalanced, the disruption of the normal gut microbiota may lead to intestinal dysbiosis due to the breaching of the intestinal barrier. Moreover, it is reported that passage of viable bacteria may occur from the gut to other extraintestinal sites including the kidney. This bacterial translocation may be associated with bacterial dysbiosis, bacterial overgrowth, and low host immune defense"
 

Hip

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This article on the gut-kidney axis says that it is considered sterile...?:

https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fmed.2020.620102/full#B34
The paper says:
In contrast to the old belief that the urinary tract is sterile recent studies demonstrated that the urinary tract possesses a unique microbiota
Although the paper then states:
Kidney is considered sterile in both men and women.
Which is confusing, since the kidneys are part of the urinary tract.

But I think the key word in that statement is "considered", which I suppose means that's the best guess. To demonstrate a kidney microbiome, I expect it might require post-mortem studies on this organ.
 
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It appears to me to be saying the lower urinary tract has bacteria but the kidneys (in the upper urinary tract) are considered sterile.

That would seem strange, you'd think since the whole system is connected there would be bacterial communities at the kidneys.

In kidney infections the bacteria travels up the urethra and then the ureter to get there, so since there is a bladder microbiome I don't see why some commensal bacteria wouldn't also migrate up to live on the walls of the kidneys. But perhaps not inside the kidneys themselves. I don't know the anatomy of the kidneys, guess will need to look into where the "mucous membranes" that Dr. Markov thinks have a dysbiosis are located.

To demonstrate a kidney microbiome, I expect it might require post-mortem studies on this organ.
Yeah, I was hoping to find some that had already been done but only found info about bladder and urethra microbiome.
 
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Garz

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its likely just a hang over from past decades where most sites inside the body were considered sterile in healthy persons - but this was just an assumption - mainly because they didn't have the teqniques to detect small non fast growing quantities of bacteria - so "no evidence of bacteria" - easily became assumed sterile

now with the advent of molecular methods like PCR, NGS, CRISP-R etc - we find that there are in fact bacterial communities in many if not all of these locations - even in the inside of organs like the brain. And the challenge has moved onto interpreting what this really means in terms of health and disease.

so it may just be a time lag thing - where the studies have just not yet been done on the kidney - as so far there may not have been a good reason to go and look with the newer methods.

i would think it is in fact safer to assume that there is in fact normally some kind of microbiome present in the kidney in healthy persons - at least in the compartments that are open to the bladder side ( and possibly deeper if the mucosal barrier is disturbed) - as we know bacterial communities exist in the bladder /rest of the urinary tract - and there is a direct connection between these sites and a suitable medium flowing between them.
 

Wishful

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I agree with Garz, about the lack of microbiomes being just poor technology at the time. It also makes me think of how food labels are allowed to report "0" when the amount is less than "1.0". If some microbes had been detected, they might have been ignored as 'slight contamination" and ignored so they wouldn't have to redo the experiment.

I'm pretty sure the kidneys don't have secret death rays to zap microbes coming up the urethra. :ninja: