I keep saying it but it needs repeating - the th1/th2 shift idea is as far as I can see completely imaginary and nothing to do with any known human disease.
Surely there is no doubt that the Th1 response is responsible for activating cell mediated immunity. And if we are presuming ME/CFS might be driven by intracellular pathogens like non-cytolytic enteroviruses (defective enteroviruses), then the activation of the Th1 mode, or lack thereof, should be an area of exploration in ME/CFS.
Couldn't a failure to mount an adequate Th1 response be a factor that helps maintain ME/CFS?
Dr Chia found an increase in Th1 cytokines occurred, along with a reduction in viral load, in all his enterovirus-associated ME/CFS patients who improved while taking oxymatrine; and those who did not improve on oxymatrine, and did not reduce their viral load, were the ones who failed to generate this Th1 response.
Likewise, in his Valcyte study, Jose Montoya found that ME/CFS patients receiving this drug tended to move towards a Th1 profile.
So here is indication that improvements in ME/CFS are associated with a shift to Th1.
I was collecting factors that decrease Th1. For example, one study I came across said that LPS decreases Th1. Then EBV, CMV and HHV-6 all make an IL-10 homologue that shifts to Th2, which might mean that the reactivations of these infections found in ME/CFS can hamper viral clearance.
The general idea was that possibly ME/CFS patients may be exposed to several factors like these that prevent an adequate Th1 response, thereby stopping them from clearing viral their intracellular infections.
Is there anything that is intrinsically wrong about thinking along these lines?