Wonko
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only if you understand numbers
This sounds weird. CFS Patients clearly don't have an immunological status comparable to AIDS, e.g. no low T-Cell counts. Does anybody know more about how to interpretate this statement?
Regards
Well, you mean the 10% reported by Fischer et al? I think the results of this study regarding differences between "healthy" and "immunocompromised" patients are not stastically significant. The groups have been way to small for that. In fact AFAIR one positive patient more or one positive patient less would have changed the results about 3%; this means that it is not possible to decide if the prevalance in immune suppressed patients is really slighly higher oder just about the same as in healty people. But however, this backs your position So i think iff the 67% hold true (i'm really not sure about that after the Lo/Alter paper), youre right.So, 10% in the immune suppressed but 67-98% in the CFS patients. Isn't that a blow to the speculation of XMRV/MLV only taking hold because our immune systems are allegedly compromised due to other causes (eg psychological stress)?
Hm, i'm afraid that thats exactly the point. But "generating interest" by press releases claming things that arent provable is not the way to go. I'm not in the medical field (okay, a least not in the way it is normally considered) but i guess the medical science community really does not like such a behaviour, and they are absolutley right about that. There's way to much bias in the field, in either direction, i'm really afraid that this will later turn out as a boomerang for us.So I'm wondering if the statement was just v general one at this stage to generate interest
I can agree about statistical significance, but I want to point out a 'Catch 22' in the field. Up until now, you couldn't get funding to run rigorous studies with enough patients to be statistically significant. If you did small studies, you couldn't get them published in good journals. On the other hand, we now have a collection of papers from studies which did get published without actually demonstrating the ability to detect infected human beings anywhere.Well, you mean the 10% reported by Fischer et al? I think the results of this study regarding differences between "healthy" and "immunocompromised" patients are not stastically significant. The groups have been way to small for that. In fact AFAIR one positive patient more or one positive patient less would have changed the results about 3%; this means that it is not possible to decide if the prevalance in immune suppressed patients is really slighly higher oder just about the same as in healty people. But however, this backs your position So i think iff the 67% hold true (i'm really not sure about that after the Lo/Alter paper), youre right...
But "generating interest" by press releases claming things that arent provable is not the way to go. I'm not in the medical field (okay, a least not in the way it is normally considered) but i guess the medical science community really does not like such a behaviour, and they are absolutley right about that. There's way to much bias in the field, in either direction, i'm really afraid that this will later turn out as a boomerang for us.
Hi,
some wise posts here, i have to think about some things said a bit more :Retro smile:
Just one 'for example' - the CDC samples were the last drops of a hugely controversial set of samples from patients recruited over the phone and assessed using definitions that seem to specifically exclude the symptoms that researchers like the WPI team consider to be cardinal symptoms. Also the tubes they used for that study are believed to be very unhelpful for this specific test (see Dr Vernon's strong statement on that subject). So when we find that all that Alter saw in that group of samples was an extremely weak trace signal in about 10% of them, it's conceivable that what we're seeing is a cohort of patients none of whom have what the WPI would call CFS, using tubes that almost completely kill off the thing you're looking for, and leave you just with a mere trace of the roughly 10% background rate in the general population. It looks pretty close to making sense. It's almost as if there are two different worlds here, and they are looking at each other as if through a mirror. It's very weird, but it does make more and more sense the more you look at the biomedical side of the argument, and as I say, look for answers to the challenging questions about the WPI and Alter's studies from the researchers themselves...those are my personal tips, anyway...
At the time those specimens were collected, careful researchers were already using the heparin-injected 'green tops'. This was true of the samples sent to DeFreitas in 1992. Why some later researchers have used a haphazard variety of collection techniques is for them to explain.In reference to the questioning statements about the tube collection method of some of the newer XMRV studies such as the CDC studyIm a bit puzzled!
Surely the old specimens that were used by the WPI and the more recent NIH study, may not have been collected with the ideal tubes also seeing that they were collected so long ago before they went into the deep freeze!
Anyone enlighten me?