Maybe this has already been covered somewhere, but this has been bugging me a bit. According to this site and others
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/235980-diagnosis
"The most consistent laboratory abnormality in patients with CFS is an extremely low erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), which approaches zero. Typically, patients with CFS have an ESR of 0-3 mm/h. An normal ESR or one that is in the upper reference range suggests another diagnosis."
Since invasion of the body by viruses would normally result in a HIGH sedimentation rate, what could possibly be going on with XMRV to make it low? Should this make us a bit more sceptical about the XMRV theory or is there some other explanation?
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/235980-diagnosis
"The most consistent laboratory abnormality in patients with CFS is an extremely low erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), which approaches zero. Typically, patients with CFS have an ESR of 0-3 mm/h. An normal ESR or one that is in the upper reference range suggests another diagnosis."
Since invasion of the body by viruses would normally result in a HIGH sedimentation rate, what could possibly be going on with XMRV to make it low? Should this make us a bit more sceptical about the XMRV theory or is there some other explanation?