I find this concept very slippery so please bear with me.
If the Imperial College intentionally screened out anyone with signs and/or symptoms of ME/CFS, which seems to be the case and their modus operandi in general, and they found 0 XMRV, does that not bolster rather than weaken the case for a connection?
If XMRV exists in between 2 and 3.7% of healthy controls, who may go on to develop ME/CFS and who may have biomarkers indicating that they are at risk, mightn't a 0 result from Imperial simply indicate that their samples had been pre-screened, deliberately yet inadvertently, for said marker.
So (squishy, squishy) what I'm trying to say is, given the statistical problem of finding 0, isn't it more likely that in their choice of cohort they have identified and excluded one or more relevant indicators of XMRV infection?
Might that not be a good thing?
If the Imperial College intentionally screened out anyone with signs and/or symptoms of ME/CFS, which seems to be the case and their modus operandi in general, and they found 0 XMRV, does that not bolster rather than weaken the case for a connection?
If XMRV exists in between 2 and 3.7% of healthy controls, who may go on to develop ME/CFS and who may have biomarkers indicating that they are at risk, mightn't a 0 result from Imperial simply indicate that their samples had been pre-screened, deliberately yet inadvertently, for said marker.
So (squishy, squishy) what I'm trying to say is, given the statistical problem of finding 0, isn't it more likely that in their choice of cohort they have identified and excluded one or more relevant indicators of XMRV infection?
Might that not be a good thing?