Hi guys,
This is my first time posting but for a month now I've been reading a bit on CFS/ME and I think it's time I finally ask a question.
Some researchers say that CFS/ME is "3" different illnesses (I think Klimas said this in 2009 with no elaboration I could immediately find). Others say "10-15" different illnesses comprise CFS/ME, with no elaboration either. They say they present in a similar way.
What exactly do they mean? Is it publicly available how these subsets are defined? Does anyone have a guess? How exactly could 10-15 different illnesses possibly cause the same thing? Do they just mean that there's 10-15 different TRIGGERS? Or do they literally mean very different processes are happening in different sufferers bodies. I don't really understand.
Is there some sort of summary of all the research to date? I'm confused how all the different findings mesh together and how they possibly could.
An example of a complete contradiction I've come across is that some people say mitochondrial dysfunction is from oxidative stress from low blood flow. (Newton I think?) But then another doctor in the past has suggested low-blood volume and low blood flow are reactions to cellular acidosis from an already existing mitochrondrial dysfunction. (Cheney I think)
So which is it? It can't be both. Either mitochrondrial dysfunction is a result or cause of POTS/Low-Blood-Volume/Low-Blood-Flow. It can't be both.
I'm very confused when I come across such contradictions and there seems to be little chatter nowadays (perhaps there was more in the past) about how such contradictions could be resolved.
There are many other findings like low cytoxicity of killer T-Cells and NK cells and low molecular weight RNase-L. One suggests a TH2-dominated humoral immune activation causing TH1 suppression while the other suggests some sort of hypoimmunity causing the TH1 response's inability to clear viruses. Which is it? Can it really be both? What are your thoughts? What is the latest news on these contradictions?
So if someone could link me to a recent summary of all this research I'd be interested. It's hard to see how all this fits together coherently without contradiction. There's so many findings from the past and new ones now: POTS/Low-blood-volume/low-blood-flow/cellular acidosis/muscle cell acid buildup/mitochrondrial dysfunction/diastolic dysfunction/TH1 suppression/TH2 activation/microglial neuroinflammation/etc.
I'm confused!
Thanks if you can help I'd appreciate it as an interested layman.
This is my first time posting but for a month now I've been reading a bit on CFS/ME and I think it's time I finally ask a question.
Some researchers say that CFS/ME is "3" different illnesses (I think Klimas said this in 2009 with no elaboration I could immediately find). Others say "10-15" different illnesses comprise CFS/ME, with no elaboration either. They say they present in a similar way.
What exactly do they mean? Is it publicly available how these subsets are defined? Does anyone have a guess? How exactly could 10-15 different illnesses possibly cause the same thing? Do they just mean that there's 10-15 different TRIGGERS? Or do they literally mean very different processes are happening in different sufferers bodies. I don't really understand.
Is there some sort of summary of all the research to date? I'm confused how all the different findings mesh together and how they possibly could.
An example of a complete contradiction I've come across is that some people say mitochondrial dysfunction is from oxidative stress from low blood flow. (Newton I think?) But then another doctor in the past has suggested low-blood volume and low blood flow are reactions to cellular acidosis from an already existing mitochrondrial dysfunction. (Cheney I think)
So which is it? It can't be both. Either mitochrondrial dysfunction is a result or cause of POTS/Low-Blood-Volume/Low-Blood-Flow. It can't be both.
I'm very confused when I come across such contradictions and there seems to be little chatter nowadays (perhaps there was more in the past) about how such contradictions could be resolved.
There are many other findings like low cytoxicity of killer T-Cells and NK cells and low molecular weight RNase-L. One suggests a TH2-dominated humoral immune activation causing TH1 suppression while the other suggests some sort of hypoimmunity causing the TH1 response's inability to clear viruses. Which is it? Can it really be both? What are your thoughts? What is the latest news on these contradictions?
So if someone could link me to a recent summary of all this research I'd be interested. It's hard to see how all this fits together coherently without contradiction. There's so many findings from the past and new ones now: POTS/Low-blood-volume/low-blood-flow/cellular acidosis/muscle cell acid buildup/mitochrondrial dysfunction/diastolic dysfunction/TH1 suppression/TH2 activation/microglial neuroinflammation/etc.
I'm confused!
Thanks if you can help I'd appreciate it as an interested layman.