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I'm Not Imaginary
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Because they're asymptomatic but may have similar/identical history of an immune onslaught as ME patients.
This makes a lot of sense to me. Any thoughts on the FMD control group?
Because they're asymptomatic but may have similar/identical history of an immune onslaught as ME patients.
Active infection, yes. Active disease, not necessarily (according to the now removed inclusion criteria).Actually, I'm pretty sure that it was clear that the controls did have to have an earlier active Lyme infection that had resolved.
So you get a course of antibiotics because you were either sero positive or because you had an EM rash. The antibiotics eradicate the infection without ever developing a fever or any other symptom. How do you tell the difference between someone who would have ultimately been symptomatic and those who were never destined to develop the disease?Antibiotics are the standard treatment for Lyme. I don't know the stats relating to how many patients recover from Lyme naturally vs with treatment, but I had assumed that anyone presenting to their doctor with Lyme would automatically be treated? So I assume it's just a case of it being the standard treatment for anyone presenting with Lyme.
The patients have to have previously tested positive for infection. You might be right about them not having to have had any symptoms, but then it's unlikely they would have sought treatment.Active infection, yes. Active disease, not necessarily (according to the now removed inclusion criteria).
I don't think it's important. The point is that the patients were subjected to a similar immune onslaught as ME patients but no longer have symptoms. We want to know why ME patients have symptoms i.e. we're looking at the immunological differences between ME patients and ex-Lyme patients. Why do ME patients have symptoms but ex-Lyme patients don't have symptoms?So you get a course of antibiotics because you were either sero positive or because you had an EM rash. The antibiotics eradicate the infection without ever developing a fever or any other symptom. How do you tell the difference between someone who would have ultimately been symptomatic and those who were never destined to develop the disease?
Why don't they take people with a documented glandular fever who recovered? GF is known for being a trigger for MECFS, whereas I don't know of any link made in the scientific literature between ME and Lyme (which doesn't mean there is none).The patients have to have previously tested positive for infection. You might be right about them not having to have had any symptoms, but then it's unlikely they would have sought treatment.
I don't think it's important. The point is that the patients were subjected to a similar immune onslaught as ME patients but no longer have symptoms. We want to know why ME patients have symptoms i.e. we're looking at the immunological differences between ME patients and ex-Lyme patients. Why do ME patients have symptoms but ex-Lyme patients don't have symptoms.
Wallitt is not the lead investigator. Nath is in charge, and his hypothesis is that ME is a post-infectious neuroimmune illness. The study design is as far as you can get from trying to show ME is psychosomatic. It's the anti-Pace trial.But when the psychobabbler is a lead investigator (Dr. Brian Walitt), the damage done can be tremendous. I've seen it in his prior studies in Fibromyalgia, post-chemo fatigue, etc, as discussed in the Details on NIH Study thread.
Good idea, Cheshire! I'd go along with that. What do other folk think? Perhaps that's a suggestion we could make in any letters we send them?Why don't they take people with a documented glandular fever who recovered? GF is known for being a trigger for MECFS, whereas I don't know of any link made in the scientific literature between ME and Lyme (which doesn't mean there is none).
I'm guessing that anybody at NIH who had previously worked in "CFS" was invited to participate.
I said he's "a" lead investigator, not "the" lead investigator. The slide from the NIH presentation has him labeled as "Lead Clinical Investigator".Wallitt is not the lead investigator.
Because the ex-Lyme patients were treated with antibiotics and if they still have symptoms after that, they are excluded from this study.I don't think it's important. The point is that the patients were subjected to a similar immune onslaught as ME patients but no longer have symptoms. We want to know why ME patients have symptoms i.e. we're looking at the immunological differences between ME patients and ex-Lyme patients. Why do ME patients have symptoms but ex-Lyme patients don't have symptoms?
I think that's why we are so perplexed about the Lyme group. Glandular fever is the obvious choice, so what are the NIH thinking of?Good idea, Cheshire! I'd go along with that. What do other folk think? Perhaps that's a suggestion we could make in any letters we send them?
I think that's why we are so perplexed about the Lyme group. Glandular fever is the obvious choice, so what are the NIH thinking of?
I don't think we need to make the suggestion. The NIH have surely considered it and ditched it in favour of Lyme. Why?
But as far as we know, some of the ex-Lyme patients had potential to develop an ME-like illness if they were left untreated for a period of time. Its impossible to find a cohort who had 100% potential to develop an ME-like illness, but didn't. I can't think of one anyway. So this seems like the next best thing. And, of course, mononucleosis (glandular fever) patients.Because the ex-Lyme patients were treated with antibiotics and if they still have symptoms after that, they are excluded from this study.
Sure, it's in the realm of possibility. But there has never been a study showing that Lyme infection ever results in ME. It seems like an inappropriate time for investigators to be jumping to conclusions in that regard.But as far as we know, some of the ex-Lyme patients had potential to develop an ME-like illness if they were left untreated for a period of time.
Wallitt is not the lead investigator. Nath is in charge, and his hypothesis is that ME is a post-infectious neuroimmune illness. The study design is as far as you can get from trying to show ME is psychosomatic. It's the anti-Pace trial.
Patients will be referred to NIH by the expert clinicians. Unger and Lipkin will have a role in patient selection as well.
I'm guessing that anybody at NIH who had previously worked in "CFS" was invited to participate. That does not mean the study is useless or that the hidden agenda is to show it is psychosomatic. Patients are getting a million dollars worth of deep biological testing - that would not be happening if this was a "CFS is psychosomatic and we're trying to fool everyone" study.
I think that's why we are so perplexed about the Lyme group. Glandular fever is the obvious choice, so what are the NIH thinking of?
I don't think we need to make the suggestion. The NIH have surely considered it and ditched it in favour of Lyme. Why?
Question, yes, absolutely. What I meant was that we didn't need to suggest it because the NIH must have considered it.I think it's a reasonable question to put to Dr Nath. We shouldn't be left guessing. We need to open up a line of communication.