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Hi all,
as this is my first post, a (very short) intro: I'm the spouse and primary caregiver of a patient suffering for over a decade from various symptoms and given the "ME" diagnosis. I'm casually following the research and as such may ask a redundant question (although some Googleing didn't show me any answer).
I think it's safe to say that it's an established fact that antibiotics mess up the gut microbiome. What surprised me recently is that supposedly many more types of medicine (anti-psychotics, anti-depressants, other?) seem to have a significant impact on the gut microbiome. In addition, last year produced multiple research findings claiming that there are deviations of the gut microbiome in ME/CFS patients compared to healthy controls. Given these findings, can it be that the main symptoms patients are suffering from are not caused by an initial viral trigger, but instead by side effects of its treatment (in the form of antibiotics/antivirals)? This may explain why:
Thanks!
as this is my first post, a (very short) intro: I'm the spouse and primary caregiver of a patient suffering for over a decade from various symptoms and given the "ME" diagnosis. I'm casually following the research and as such may ask a redundant question (although some Googleing didn't show me any answer).
I think it's safe to say that it's an established fact that antibiotics mess up the gut microbiome. What surprised me recently is that supposedly many more types of medicine (anti-psychotics, anti-depressants, other?) seem to have a significant impact on the gut microbiome. In addition, last year produced multiple research findings claiming that there are deviations of the gut microbiome in ME/CFS patients compared to healthy controls. Given these findings, can it be that the main symptoms patients are suffering from are not caused by an initial viral trigger, but instead by side effects of its treatment (in the form of antibiotics/antivirals)? This may explain why:
- it has been impossible for scientists to find a viral cause,
- prevalence is higher in the "developed" world (due to better access to pharmacological treatment of infections?),
- prevalence is higher in the last decades (for the same reasons, i.e. more pharmacological interventions);
Thanks!