One argument against the CDC two-tier testing method is that their requirements for a positive Western Blot are unnecessarily stringent. While some bands are widely known to cross-react with other infections, it is also said that some bands are Lyme-specific, and do not react to anything else.
Thus the conclusion is that being positive for a purportedly Lyme-specific band should be taken as proof of past or present Lyme infection.
Related to this is the claim that stringent CDC requirements were actually intended for official reporting of the disease, not for diagnosis.
But is there verification of that there are 1) Lyme-specific bands and 2) that the CDC initially did intend the stringent requirements to apply to clinical diagnosis? Research is preferred, though in this case CDC documents are also likely to be relevant in showing their past stance, and/or if that stance has evolved over time. Posts from Lyme forums are not directly helpful, though they might include useful citations.
Thus the conclusion is that being positive for a purportedly Lyme-specific band should be taken as proof of past or present Lyme infection.
Related to this is the claim that stringent CDC requirements were actually intended for official reporting of the disease, not for diagnosis.
But is there verification of that there are 1) Lyme-specific bands and 2) that the CDC initially did intend the stringent requirements to apply to clinical diagnosis? Research is preferred, though in this case CDC documents are also likely to be relevant in showing their past stance, and/or if that stance has evolved over time. Posts from Lyme forums are not directly helpful, though they might include useful citations.