Let's just say that the prevalence of XMRV is about 4% (which I personally believe to be true) but the prevalence in the blood supply is only .1, as Dr. Vernon states. Dear forum scientists, is there a way both of these "facts" could be accurate?
Possible explanations include:
1. the standard treatment process for donor blood is enough to kill off most of the virus
2. the blood donor population is significantly different from the general population
I am sure there are other possible reasons.