Let's just say that the prevalence of XMRV is about 4% (which I personally believe to be true) but the prevalence in the blood supply is only .1, as Dr. Vernon states. Dear forum scientists, is there a way both of these "facts" could be accurate?
1. the standard treatment process for donor blood is enough to kill off most of the virus
2. the blood donor population is significantly different from the general population
I am sure there are other possible reasons.