That's not what I meant. Of course, depending on the damage, the expression of the disease can be different and of course there are then different groups, but to go back to your example, with MS, we know that the body's immune system attacks the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord). This leads to inflammation and damage to the protective covering around nerve fibers, and symptoms vary in severity depending on where this inflammation occurs. But the way the disease works, is always the same. What I mean by that is, if the cause is in some these autoantibodies, i dont find it likely that in another person, it is suddenly intestinal bacteria for example (if the trigger was the same virus). Lets exclude Long Covid, we know that it can be an umbrella term for different diseases such as organ damage, MECFS type, etc.
Again that's just my theory, but if these aabs play a major role, it think it will be the cause in the majority of MECFS. (exluding those with spinal cord problems)
That is still something we'll continue to see very differently, which is of course totally fine. Grouping people based on invisible symptom presentation, which is of course the best that can be currently done, has never ever led to a disease with a unifying cause, nor a singular treatment approach (as would be in the case of BC007). For MS we simply can't say "the way the disease works, is always the same", because we don't know how the disease works. It might not always be the same mechanism even in a scneraio where we have reliable biomarkers. I very strongly doubt ME/CFS will always be the same mechanism and cause and in the absence of biomarkers I find it extremely unlikely.
We already know of multiple disease that have a very similar, if not almost identical, symptomatic presentation as ME/CFS, would they not have a biomarker, these diseases would all be considered to be the same disease. I don't see how ME/CFS is any different. If anything I think that if there was a unifying disease mechanism for ME/CFS then we'd probably be a lot further in research. We both acknowledge that Long-Covid is a highly variable umbrella term for different diseases, however this just makes it even far more likely that a certain symptomatic presentation would be another umbrella term, or do you disagree on this and if so I'd be interested in why?