@Jonathan Edwards
I agree with everything in your post. Actually, when I posted mine, I felt I was being somewhat lazy in not actually explaining why it doesn't make sense. It is something I am critical of others for doing sometimes, but I felt your post did address it from a rational, medically sound perspective. I knew I had looked at it at one point a while ago and thought in more detail and then discounted it, but I didn't remember exactly why, and my own knowledge on vagal anatomy and immune-neurological interactions is also hazy. It's good to have others keep me intellectually honest though, and to hold me to the standards I'd hold others to. After all, if we claim to be scientists, then our pursuit should be the truth above all else.
I think the hit and run theory doesn't preclude other contributing factors creating a predisposition, which may even suggest the trigger is being repeated on an ongoing basis at lower levels (or variable levels). (p.s. Do you use Reiter's and ReA differently? I know some do - but we were taught to not use Reiter's as a term due to his unsavory political affiliations... not that it offends me, it doesn't, was just curious if the terms are synonymous to you.) We know that ReA (and the other seronegative spondyloarthritides) are strongly linked to B27 and some other class 1 alleles. Even so, the patient generally does fine until the infection - which creates a long term illness in some - but not all. Additionally, many with B27:05 (i.e. those known to be associated with ReA, as a few B27 alleles are protective) do not ever have any evidence of pathology. Did they simply not get triggered? Other genes are known to play a role as well. So there is this ongoing, complicated interaction between genes and triggers, and pathology can exist in the absence of current infection, and even the reverse can be true.
I agree that antibody related immunity is different, and more likely involves some problem with clonal deletion of autoreactive lymphocytes. It may be that there can be an infectious trigger (c. jejuni and CMV are known to trigger GBS, which often shows anti-ganglioside antibodies). However, I suspect a predisposition is necessary to develop it, perhaps through HLA types or other immune genes, or some other mechanism - and there may just be a "random" effect in there as well, or it may be tied to the exposure (quantity or location of antigen, etc.)
I think some degree of hit and run with long term damage may be in play, but I don't think that's the entire explanation. I favor an explanation where, at least those with a replapsing/remitting pattern, are re-triggered due to a basic susceptibility factor, which I believe is probably at least partly genetic. However, they may never return to normal health completely, even if they partially recover, reflecting some level of damage. Young people often recover fully - which is true of many illnesses, and represents the ability of younger tissue to heal more efficiently (e.g. a young stroke victim will recover, in general, far more function than an old stroke victim - not just through compensatory mechanisms, but due to increased neural plasticity). I do think something is propagating the cycle, and hope so - as interrupting it could represent a model for treatment. The very fact that rituximab works (assuming the phase 3 trial confirms prior results) argues against static unrepaired damage being the cause.
I do completely agree with you that we should explain mechanistically why a given theory doesn't make sense rather than just dismissing it w/o explanation. I took the lazy man's way out - but fortunately you have offered a good explanation as to why the vagal nerve infection is unlikely.
A few somewhat off topic questions I've been pondering - if there is increased cell death for any reason, does that increase the likelihood of autoimmunity developing, as macrophages will clear the debris, and then express self antigens on class II MHC's? Obviously there are mechanisms to prevent this, both in the development and maturation of cells and also later on as well, but I was wondering if there is evidence one way or the other for autoimmunity being connected to partly intact intracellular antigens being presented?
Second, have you ever heard or read, or do you know personally of, any cases of either autologous or allogeneic stem cell transplantation in ME? Does it have any effect? I know it is used in some severe autoimmune diseases such as lupus and systemic sclerosis.