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XRMV in 33 PCR Negative CFS Patients from Science paper
19/33 Antibodies in Plasma
30/33 Transmitable Virus in Plasma
10/33 Protein Expression (Latent Virus)
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Ok, so this makes sense, but of these three tests, which one corresponds to the "culture" test done by VIPdx? Is it the Protein expression (10/33) or the Transmissable Virus in Plasma (30/33).
Really what I'm getting at, is, what are the statistical odds of testing negative for both PCR and Culture, and still testing positive for Antibodies. It seems to me that if the VIPdx culture test is equivalent to the Virus in Plasma test, and I tested negative on that, then the odds are pretty low. But, if the VIPdx culture test = Protein expression then the odds seems higher.
Not a statistician, by any stretch, so my logic may be entirely off, but if anyone has insight on this, great.
19/33 Antibodies in Plasma
30/33 Transmitable Virus in Plasma
10/33 Protein Expression (Latent Virus)
------------------------------------------------------------
Ok, so this makes sense, but of these three tests, which one corresponds to the "culture" test done by VIPdx? Is it the Protein expression (10/33) or the Transmissable Virus in Plasma (30/33).
Really what I'm getting at, is, what are the statistical odds of testing negative for both PCR and Culture, and still testing positive for Antibodies. It seems to me that if the VIPdx culture test is equivalent to the Virus in Plasma test, and I tested negative on that, then the odds are pretty low. But, if the VIPdx culture test = Protein expression then the odds seems higher.
Not a statistician, by any stretch, so my logic may be entirely off, but if anyone has insight on this, great.