Very weird that the size of "sample" of patients dips so much at post-treatment, then rises even higher than the pre-treatment sample group at the follow-up.Here are the main results:
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There's a couple pretty obvious problems with that - they aren't showing results from the full group of patients in the study, and we know that at least some of the patients in at least one time point weren't part of the "sample" in all three time points. This seems pretty screwed up, since the entire group of patients in a study is expected to be the "sample" representing the patients with the same disease.
And this leads to another issue - did they cherry pick the members of the sample groups they used to get results at the various time points? This can be done randomly, but still still deliberately, by randomly selecting data from a different subset of patients until they authors get the collection of individual participant data which they want. So you run the random selection 1000 times, and eventually you get your ideal outcome, even if it doesn't reflect the standard outcome for participants.
Or is there another explanation for that weirdness?