gm286
Senior Member
- Messages
- 142
- Location
- Atlanta, GA
I am being seen at what is arguably the most competent medical complex in Oregon. Unfortunately, as anticipated, ME/CFS care is mitigated, some good some bad.
The PCP, whom I met for the first time on Friday, seemed helpful insofar as he was willing to listen to my story and then to try some medications that are more or less trialled in ME/CFS, Fibromyalgia, IBS, etc.
The red flags came later: he recommended GET (I then asked him if he was aware of the controversy there). Then, when I informed him I intended to pursue diagnosis, he skeptically questioned it: "We could not theoretically diagnose it because how would one diagnose a syndrome?"
This is ridiculous. I obviously intend to put up a front and resist / counter this because in no way will I allow a PCP to position himself re: my illness in this way.
My question: one of the important goals in getting a FORMAL diagnosis is to be able to not hide behind my illness (or hide my illness quite simply) and be comfortable enough to ask for work accommodations if need be in the future.
How does this process work? What goes into getting a 'formal diagnosis'? Are papers filled out? Is the PCP the only person who can legally diagnose and fill out these papers? Can I just bypass him and pay a specialist (if I find one) to diagnose? Does he have to refer me?
Just trying to figure out how much power my PCP has in this situation, if he intends to further resist. I am uncomfortable in these situations because to me they should simply NOT be happening, especially given my illness is now seventeen years old.
The PCP, whom I met for the first time on Friday, seemed helpful insofar as he was willing to listen to my story and then to try some medications that are more or less trialled in ME/CFS, Fibromyalgia, IBS, etc.
The red flags came later: he recommended GET (I then asked him if he was aware of the controversy there). Then, when I informed him I intended to pursue diagnosis, he skeptically questioned it: "We could not theoretically diagnose it because how would one diagnose a syndrome?"
This is ridiculous. I obviously intend to put up a front and resist / counter this because in no way will I allow a PCP to position himself re: my illness in this way.
My question: one of the important goals in getting a FORMAL diagnosis is to be able to not hide behind my illness (or hide my illness quite simply) and be comfortable enough to ask for work accommodations if need be in the future.
How does this process work? What goes into getting a 'formal diagnosis'? Are papers filled out? Is the PCP the only person who can legally diagnose and fill out these papers? Can I just bypass him and pay a specialist (if I find one) to diagnose? Does he have to refer me?
Just trying to figure out how much power my PCP has in this situation, if he intends to further resist. I am uncomfortable in these situations because to me they should simply NOT be happening, especially given my illness is now seventeen years old.
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