FancyMyBlood
Senior Member
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I made this post in another topic, but because of the importance I think this deserves an own topic to increase exposure and the chance for answers.
Unfortunately they didn't post my question either (Science chat). While I now firmly believe the XMRV connection is dead, I still can't close the chapter for myself until it's answered. I've already asked it to prof. Racaniello on his virology blog after the Singh or the Levy/Coffin study, but I didn't get a response.
In this interview (http://blogs.wsj.com/health/2011/05/...igue-syndrome/) prof. Racaniello states that "He says that other viruses have proteins that are highly related to XMRV proteins. If the patients then test positive for antibodies, it looks like they have antibodies to XMRV but they are not specific to that virus."
To me it sounds he's suggesting there is another virus causing the antibody response. But how can we find out which virus it is? And if it's not a virus, what can explain the antibody reponse?