I'm a bit confused here with the gender stuff. Looking at the raw data, only 1/75 men developed CFS vs 16/142 (1 in 9) women: in a simple-minded way, surely that's got to be significant? The pattern could hardly be stronger (zero men with CFS, 1 in 9 women?). The multivariate logistic regression analyses table gives an enormous SD for Gender, but isn't it possible to calculate an OR from the basic data? Or to put it another way, could their calculations be flawed? They don't give the raw data for all-or-nothing (numbers with/without A-o-N attitude who do/don't develop CFS), but I'd be very surprised if they showed a stronger pattern than that for gender. Is there any way of checking this from the data presented?