To those who have done some research in the studies, journals, etc... What would your conclusion be for an individual who took medications well-known to cause Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS), but usually only in individuals who were immune-compromised prior to taking them. Flulike symptoms and neuromuscular/nerve problems developed for 8 months after. MRI, EMG, and all bloodwork normal. Repeatedly. No elevated white blood cells. Nothing. Except: CD8 Levels high. Pro-inflammatory immune markers low. Anti-inflammatory markers very high. Lyme Disease, Cytomegalovirus, and HHV6 and Epstein Barr antibody tests all positive and *acute* (IGG/IGM). But: All PCR testing for all the above: negative. Lyme C6 Peptide, Western Blot, and PCR: negative. Twice. CMV PCR negative: Three times over a 1 year period. All testing to actually confirm the presence of these viruses, came back negative. Those familiar with IRIS know there are different forms, but one includes the immune system "mistaking" past infections as currently active, and mounting an immune response (IGG/IGM) to fight them off. Discussions with physicians fruitless. One ignores the negative PCR and wants to treat the infections anyways. Others see the negative PCR's and confidently declare there is *no* current infection. And despite the fact that this clearly paints a picture of a confused immune system fighting off past infections (Classic IRIS), all physicians agree that it is impossible to experience IRIS without an immune suppressing disease like HIV. Special note: Other individuals who have taken the exact same medications, have ended up with diagnoses like GBS, CIDP, Sarcoidosis, and unexplained inflammatory immune conditions. What is your take on the positive antibody test and negative PCR's in this setting?