I've only searched the really rare results so far - those less than 1.0 - and the two homogenous result, and only one of these SNPs has anything recorded for it in the databases I've looked in online.
i5002444 2 T 0.27 CT rs121908515
This one, it says is related to hereditary spastic paraplegia which usually shows up in mid adulthood. The risky result appears to be T;T...I think!
Would having one of those risk allels present some risk alone? The NHS site says "In most cases, a child with HSP will have inherited the faulty gene from just one of their parents, and this dominates over the corresponding normal gene they inherit from the other parent. This is known as autosomal dominant inheritance. Sometimes, adults will carry a weaker version of the abnormal gene, which means they don't have symptoms but can pass on HSP to their children.
In some cases, a single copy of the faulty gene does not cause HSP. In these cases, children only develop HSP if they inherit the abnormal genes from both of their parents. This is known as autosomal recessive inheritance.
About 70-80% of cases of HSP result from autosomal dominant inheritance, and the remainder from autosomal recessive inheritance." which leads me to think the answer can be yes sometimes?
Help gratefully recieved!
Best
Joel