I think we need the verifiable evidence (if there actually is any) of this claim that more women are affected with... well what? then men. Which reference sources are we referring to here? How many? My fear is that there is a lot of possibly, indeed likely, untenable gender assumptions being made here, and this mirrors those in the 'literature'- which are mostly highly flawed at best. Loads of psychiatric paradigm based literature on any somatic condition (including just pain) is full of untenable ideological gender assumptions that get passed off as fact on the strength of their utterance in a peer review paper alone.