Walitt's underlying model of psychosomatic disorders (based on reading 10-12 of his papers), seems to be that basically:
Respect. It's taken me two days to wade through just the one. But I reached several of the same conlusions just from that one.
There is no damage or ongoing pathology....
Physiological differences are associated with the psychosomatism, but are also somehow normal and not indicative of a neurological or other biological disorder.
...Basically, he seems to concede that there might be a partially physiological basis for the psychosomatic disorder, but there is no physiological basis for the symptoms being experienced.
It's all a bit muddled from Walitt, and I'm trying to tease it out..
These quotes from the chemobrain paper
We hypothesize that acute shifts in cytokines related to chemotherapy administration lead to epigenetic alterations. These epigenetic changes persist after the resolution of the chemotherapy-induced immunologic changes and are primarily responsible for creating and maintaining changes in neuroplasticity that underlie the somatoform experience of chemobrain.
So they are pointing the finger at cytokine changes as initiating things. But note
Chemotherapy, or the psychological ramifications of cancer treatment, may simply be one of a variety of “triggers” that ultimately lead to dyscognition.
Also: ...We hypothesize that acute shifts in cytokines related to chemotherapy administration lead to epigenetic alterations.
So maybe they are arguing that both chemotherapy and psych stress trigger a biological cascade, that leads to the "experience" of chemobrain. ie:
chemo => cytokine spike => long-term epigenetic changes => experience of chemobrain
as well as
psych stress => cytokine spike => long-term epigenetic changes => experience of chemobrain
What isn't clear to me is this claim that somehow the long-term epigenetic changes* is non-pathological. (*or whatever, there is mcuh less evidence for this claim than the more traditional and more specific idea of activation of microglia, the brain's immune cells)
They claim these epigenetic changes "create and maintain changes in neuroplasticity", yet are also normal. But I can't see any elaboration on the idea, let alone evidence. It's a black hole at the centre of the paper. There's just this
A somatoform view of chemobrain would consider it as an atypical yet predictable subjective experience that result from the normal functioning of the brain rather than from an injury
But that's just a vague assertion: they don't propose a clear biological or psychological mechanism, or why this is normal and not pathological.
This is all the evidence for the role of cytokines in chemobrain
Multiple clinical studies have demonstrated that administration of a standard dose of chemotherapy causes increases in cytokine levels such as TNF-α, IL-6, IL-8, IL-10, and MCP-1in cancer patients and that these changes are more prominent in patients who experienced dyscognition
Looking at data where I could find it, the changes generally aren't that big and clearly they occur in all patients not just those who go on to develop chemobrain. So could the extra small increase explain chemobrain? The authors don't explore or explain, but it's hardly compelling.
Bit more on how mecfs is just like chemobrain:
The state of the evidence for chemobrain strongly resembles that which is seen in fibromyalgia and chronic fatigue syndrome. Like chemobrain, patients with these illnesses experience subjective and clinically distressing dyscognition, with attention, concentration, forgetfulness, word-finding, multi-tasking, and organization being the most common complaints. Also like chemobrain, measurements of objective neuropsychologic function frequently fail to demonstrate impairment and what is seen in positive studies is of small clinical magnitude [
40–
42].
Both of these illnesses have disputed causal triggers, such as trauma in fibromyalgia and infection in chronic fatigue syndrome, whose validity is also not answered by the scientific literature to date.
You'd think they'd read the literature before writing an article that suggests a cause of the illness (see eg Dubbo ref in my last post as good evidence of a causal trigger in some cases of mecfs).
As for the importance of cytokines in inducing chemobrain, it's not that clear
Overall, it looks to me like a bit of a vague hypothesis with little evidence, that somehow the authors decide to attach to a different condition. Maybe if they could nail their hypothesis in chemobrain first, they could then think about clearly explaining why it might be relevant to other diseases/illnesses/"misperceptions".
added more from paper on role of cytokines:
In summary, there is strong evidence that correlates changes in peripheral cytokines with the development of dyscognition in the setting of many if not all commonly used chemotherapeutic drugs for different types of cancer [64,76,78,83]. The changes are typically heterogenous, with small magnitude of change being seen in multiple cytokines simultaneously. However, the mechanisms by which these cytokines elicit change in the central nervous system are still unclear. We speculate that a variety of well-defined neuronal mechanisms enable peripheral cytokines to induce central cytokine changes, which trigger a subsequent cascade of neurological events as described below that lead to the experience of chemobrain [64,76–78,83].
But 'below' is the generic info on epigenetics that adds little of substance: just says epigenetics happens and describes the biochemistry of epigenetics, as well as saying there is some evidence of epigenetic changes being involved in both stress and brain pathologies:
Emerging studies indicate that epigenetic regulation of gene expression is i
nvolved in various brain-related disorders, such as addiction, depression, stress, and Alzheimer’s disease, that genetics alone cannot entirely explain [
86–
89]
But that's a bit like saying gene expression is involved in Alzheimer's, stress etc. So what?