I have a big problem with the term 'mood disturbances'. What does that mean? (I'm being rhetorical) Like 'emotional lability', reported in the earlier accounts of 'ME' (Ramsay, Richardson etc.) changes of mood, and moods in general (!) are so ubiquitous among sick and well human, to actually quantify a state where one person suffers from 'mood disturbances', and another doesn't, is - well - probably impossible. A cancer diagnosis (or even scare) will lead to frequent changes in mood, and the preponderance of certain 'moods' (concern, anxiety, etc). But then so will moving house. I'm always concerned when ME/CFS patients are singularly posited as having mood 'disturbances' and 'disorders' - as if these were different to the rest of the chronically sick population per se or even the whole population. There is no adequate clear evidence to suggest there is a specific mood 'disturbance' as any cardinal symptom that can be specifically elucidated. Clarity of exposition and theory, especially around 'psychological' phenomena, is what we need, at least. Even the scientists who people see as being 'on our side' are guilty of perpetuating this problem (lack of such).